Niche Modeling

18 responses so far ↓

• 1 Peter Gallagher // Sep 4, 2008 at 9:23 am

  David,

  To avoid spoilers, I’ve sent you an email with some suggested solutions. Neat!

  Best,

  Peter

  Peter Gallaghers last blog post..Chroming the Internet

• 2 davids // Sep 4, 2008 at 9:50 am

  Cool and well done. Not the only solutions, so I will post all the answers sent in tomorrow. Cheers

• 3 Jan Pompe // Sep 4, 2008 at 11:07 am

  I’ll wait for the solutions I have one for all except the first and am going to give up on it.

• 4 Carl // Sep 4, 2008 at 3:08 pm

  I think the solutions to 3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 are fairly straightforward. However, number 1 isn’t.
  I’ve tried to reproduce it below, the right hand side should read “the infinite root of 6″.

  1 x 1 x 1 = ∞√6

• 5 Jan Pompe // Sep 4, 2008 at 6:22 pm

  carl

  1*1*1 = 6^0 did cross the mind but I thought it might not be legit.

• 6 Josh // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:03 am

  φ(n) (Euler’s totient function) is your friend…

• 7 Bob D // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:14 am

  Are other digits allowed as subscripts or superscripts?

• 8 Peter Gallagher // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:19 am

  If you’re thinking Euler (or Boltzmanm, Planck or Avagadro for that matter) your friend may really be the Magic Number Machine.

  Peter Gallaghers last blog post..Precautionary principle, misleading and undemocratic

• 9 Peter Gallagher // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:20 am

  Damn… Try that link again: Magic Number Machine

  Peter Gallaghers last blog post..Precautionary principle, misleading and undemocratic

• 10 David Stockwell // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:29 am

  Bob D: Yes.
  Jan: 6^0 Works for me

• 11 Jan Pompe // Sep 5, 2008 at 1:47 am

  Thanks David,

  for both the fun and the answer.

  I wasn’t sure whether we we could operate on both sides.

  Now I’m really curious about what Josh might be thinking. Josh?

• 12 David Stockwell // Sep 5, 2008 at 2:05 am

  φ(3+3+3) =6
  φ(6+6+6) =6

  But are you ready for my answer?

• 13 Jan Pompe // Sep 5, 2008 at 2:36 am

  David

  Ahah.

  I am are others?

• 14 David Stockwell // Sep 5, 2008 at 2:43 am

  OK: Where n is any number:

  (n^0 + n^0 + n^0)! = 6

  I’ll collate all the answers into a post if you want to surrender them now.

  David Stockwells last blog post..A maths home work quiz

• 15 Josh // Sep 5, 2008 at 11:35 am

  1! × ⌊tan 1⌋ + log 1 = ⌈cos 6⌉

  ☺

• 16 Geoff Sherrington // Sep 7, 2008 at 11:03 am

  Good mathematicians start conversations either by drawing a triple integral first, or by explaining “On one hand….”

  Digital solutions:

  On one hand I found 5 fingers + 1 thumb = 6.

  On the other hand, I found 4 fingers + 1 thumb = 5.

  (Noted asymmetry and mirroring).

  While looking for a nice solution in hand, I deduced that people smart enough to know about Euler’s Totient Function are w…….s. (wiki readers).

  Time for solution = 0.3 milliseconds.

  (This has not been peer reviewed).

• 17 Ian Random // Sep 9, 2008 at 1:14 am

  (1+1+1)!=6

• 18 Geoff Sherrington // Sep 10, 2008 at 2:32 am

  More serious this time, does this fit the rules of the game? Might not work for n = 0.

  {[(n)! – (n-1)!]/3 + [(n)! – (n-1)!]/3 + [(n)! – (n-1)!]/3 } = n

  I have never really thought about the sign of the factorial of a negative integer. I guess it alternates.

  Thought time: 2 weeks

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